Emergency Medicine Exam 1 Practice

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In the initial assessment of a near-drowning patient, which of the following steps is recommended?
• Pyelonephritis is an infection of which anatomical structures?
• Hepatotoxicity starts at which mg/kg/day with acetaminophen?
• Ejection fraction is SV/EDV. What does EDV stand for?
• Which nerve is indicated by sensation testing at the first dorsal web space of the hand?
• Which test is essential to evaluate suspected diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which statement best describes the overall clinical utility of the straight leg raise test?
• Which testing scenario includes a general antibody screen but does not attempt crossmatching for donor cells in urgent transfusion?
• A UTI can present as either acute _______ or acute ________
• If a wound is high risk for infection, when should antibiotics be started?
• What is the treatment for hypoglycemia if no IV access is available?
• If a straight leg raise test is negative, what is the most appropriate clinical interpretation?
• Which of the following is a treatment option for priapism?
• What is the most common cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• Which antibiotic regimen is appropriate for epididymo-orchitis in sexually active men?
• In suspected kidney stones, which imaging study is ordered?
• Which of the following is included in the management of neurogenic shock?
• The BURP maneuver improves the laryngoscopic view of the glottic opening by applying pressure in which direction set?
• Eyelid wounds should be referred if they involve which structures?
• Which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the little finger?
• In outpatient burn care, when should blisters be debrided?
• What does the AVPU scale stand for in neurological assessment?
• A left shift on the oxygen affinity curve is associated with which changes in pH, temperature, and CO2?
• Which items are important to document when examining a wound?
• In an emergency department, platelets should be considered for treatment under which criteria?
• Hyponatremia is a common electrolyte disturbance seen in which condition?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does each arm contribute?
• To anesthetize the red area near the cheek, which nerve should be targeted?
• Painful cramps in heavily exercised skeletal muscle are characteristic of which heat-related condition?
• In triage, which color denotes the first priority?
• IVIG is derived from which source?
• Before performing a digital block, what physical exam should you perform?
• In suspected hypothermia, which temperature measurement is used to assess core temperature?
• Which nerve is responsible for abduction and adduction of the fingers?
• Prickly heat is caused by blockage of sweat pores. Which option lists the correct condition in the ordering used here?
• Which of the following is part of initial management for urinary stones?
• In alcoholic ketoacidosis, which agent should be given first during treatment?
• Which statement about potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis is accurate?
• Which of the following is NOT typically used in the initial management of electrical injuries?
• Which types of anemia would have a low MCV?
• Mean arterial pressure is calculated as which of the following relationships?
• Which sequence correctly lists the general steps of rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?
• Which class corresponds to the greatest blood loss?
• Is isolated orchitis uncommon in adults and usually associated with epididymitis?
• Which of the following is NOT typically considered an H or T cause of cardiac arrest?
• What is a common initial treatment for hypercalcemia?
• Match the hyponatremia level to its recommended treatment.
• Field blocks require lower concentrations of local anesthetic than nerve blocks.
• Which items constitute a procedure note?
• Which local anesthetic has an onset around 5 minutes and a duration of about 6 hours?
• What is the standard treatment for DKA?
• Which laboratory pattern is typically seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Which tool is used to quantify neurological status during resuscitation?
• What is recommended in the treatment of hypothermia?
• Leftward shift on the oxygen affinity curve would cause what change in oxygen unloading to tissues?
• Which product is commonly used to replace multiple coagulation factors in bleeding due to liver disease?
• What is the immediate intervention for an obstructed airway?
• What term describes circulatory insufficiency causing tissue hypoperfusion, metabolic acidosis, and decreased venous oxygen content?
• In triage, which color denotes the second priority with care delayed 45-60 minutes?
• To anesthetize the yellow area at the chin, which nerve should be targeted?
• When evaluating upper-extremity wounds, which of the following statements is true regarding patient history and physical examination?
• To anesthetize the blue area near the eye, which nerve should be targeted?
• Which bite is associated with a target lesion after a pinprick sensation with induration, erythema, and blistering?
• Hypercalcemia is most commonly seen with which malignancies?
• Which description best fits a back strain or sprain?
• Discharge criteria for patients with urinary stones mainly include which condition?
• Frostbite is classified by which factors?
• Which laboratory studies are typically obtained in evaluating cardiogenic shock?
• Which of the following statements about hypothermia management is true?
• Which term denotes the stage of shock in which compensatory mechanisms maintain perfusion and blood pressure?
• Which of the following is a primary approach to treating disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• Which statement accurately describes electrical injuries from alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC)?
• What is the cut-off time mentioned for attempting detorsion to salvage the testicle?
• What is the term for stones located specifically in the ureter?
• What imaging is emergently needed when cauda equina syndrome is suspected?
• Who was the first developer of academic emergency medicine?
• Which non-opioid drug has onset 30 seconds to 2 minutes and is a muscle relaxant that can cause phlebitis when given IV?
• Which organism is commonly involved in hand wound infections?
• Which type of shock results from acute blood loss?
• Death from laryngospasm and hypoxemia without aspiration.
• What is the treatment of choice for a pathologic fracture?
• Which routes are appropriate for morphine administration?
• Which laboratory marker is used to confirm carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which physiologic sign is commonly associated with pain?
• Which of the following is listed as an admission criterion for urinary stone management?
• Which statement reflects the implication of a negative straight leg raise test in suspected disc herniation?
• What is the general local reaction to bites and stings?
• Which laboratory value is important to measure for carbon monoxide poisoning?
• What is the treatment for pre-renal renal failure?
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation is most often triggered by which category of conditions?
• Which of the following is NOT a red flag for cancer in a patient with back pain?
• Which airway cannot be used in a conscious patient due to gag reflex?
• Which maneuvers are included in opening the airway for an unconscious patient with suspected airway obstruction?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the patient abducts the thumb?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, how should sodium be corrected for hyperglycemia?
• What is the IV dose for morphine sulfate?
• IV immunoglobulins (IVIG) are used for which conditions?
• In rhabdomyolysis due to exertional causes, which patient is typically considered safe for discharge?
• Which statement about acetaminophen is true?
• What is the primary treatment for rhabdomyolysis?
• Hyponatremia with sodium less than 125 mEq/L is treated with which therapy?
• Which of the following is part of the initial management of anaphylactic shock?
• In sickle cell disease, an elevated reticulocyte count with splenomegaly most likely indicates which complication?
• Which sign indicates airway involvement in burn patients?
• This local anesthetic is commonly used and has an onset of 2-5 minutes and lasts for 2-3 hours.
• Which finding would indicate cauda equina syndrome in a patient with back pain?
• Which statement best describes the management approach for suspected cauda equina syndrome?
• Which physiologic sign is commonly associated with pain and can be present in acute distress?
• In trench foot, feet may be painful after rewarming for how long?
• How is the patient positioned to perform the straight leg raise test?
• Which statement best describes the typical progression of symptoms after smoke exposure leading to carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which statement accurately describes the two broad categories of platelet defects?
• Which of the following is a sympatholytic effect of opioids?
• Which topical agent is commonly used for minor burns but should be avoided on the face due to staining?
• Neurogenic shock results from disruption of sympathetic outflow leading to unopposed parasympathetic activity. Which statement best describes this mechanism?
• What is a key management step for thyroid storm?
• Which of the following is a sign of anemia?
• Which local anesthetic is used on the eyes and provides immediate results?
• Which treatment is included in the management of acute chest syndrome?
• What is the term for pretransfusion testing that includes blood type, Rh, and an antibody screen?
• In this thrombotic microangiopathy, what two hematologic abnormalities are expected?
• Which opioid does not release histamine?
• Which finding is a red flag for back pain indicating possible nerve root involvement?
• Which color code is used to indicate the highest priority for life-saving interventions?
• Which medication is a cornerstone in treating myxedema coma?
• 1% lidocaine contains which of the following mg per mL?
• This results from breathing compressed air for excessive depth and time while diving and causes excessive bubble formation in tissue and circulation causing acute occlusive and delayed inflammatory response.
• Which of the following is an indication for packed red blood cell transfusion?
• Cardiogenic shock is shock caused by
• The medical term for survival after submersion with asphyxia is near drowning.
• Which opioid has a toxic metabolite that may cause seizures?
• Opioids cause presynaptic ____ channels to close and postsynaptic ____ channels to open.
• In the initial near-drowning evaluation, which test is routinely performed?
• What term describes self-limited edema that can occur with initial warmth exposure?
• Which of the following is an oral opioid analgesic?
• Which statement best describes blood pressure in shock?
• Where do nonopioid analgesics primarily exert their effect compared with opioids?
• Which puncture wounds are eligible for low-pressure irrigation?
• For a laceration containing a foreign body, which closure approach is preferred?
• In the management of high-pressure puncture wounds, which statement is true?
• In the management of hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock, which option best describes an essential step?
• If a patient has weakness of quadriceps extension and diminished knee reflex, which nerve root is compressed?
• 1% lidocaine solution contains how many milligrams per milliliter?
• Which of the following is an H or T cause of cardiac arrest?
• When can an alcoholic ketoacidosis patient be discharged?
• In a patient with back pain and a history of IV drug use, which differential diagnoses should be considered?
• Which description corresponds to 1st-degree frostbite (frostnip)?
• Which organ is primarily affected in HUS?
• Dysbarism occurs due to pressure changes during which activities?
• Which presentation is classic for urinary stones?
• Which patient requires admission after a hypoglycemic episode?
• After evaluation for kidney stones, which statement describes discharge planning?
• Which laboratory test is typically used to evaluate anemia?
• Which finding is most consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis?
• What is the study of choice for evaluating renal failure?
• What is the treatment for bed bug bites?
• Which of the following are reperfusion strategies in cardiogenic shock?
• Which intervention may be required in high-voltage electrical injuries due to potential deep tissue damage and rhabdomyolysis?
• Severe hypothyroidism with decreased mental status and hypothermia precipitated by infection, cold exposure, or trauma describes which condition?
• Which finding is not typical of cauda equina syndrome?
• In the eye-opening component of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which description corresponds to the highest score?
• Where should you begin suturing for lesions of the nose?
• Which item is included in a standard procedure note?
• What is the composition of the majority of urinary stones?
• Which medication is used IV for SVT if non-pharmacologic maneuvers fail?
• Which color code indicates a patient who is dead or likely to die?
• The topical anesthetic Emla consists of which two drugs?
• Back pain with unexpected anal sphincter laxity suggests which serious condition?
• In management of a septal hematoma, which approach is recommended?
• To anesthetize the green area near the medial eyebrow, which nerve should be targeted?
• Which measure describes the percentage of oxygen remaining in the blood returning to the lungs, typically sampled from the pulmonary artery via a pulmonary artery catheter?
• In a pregnant patient with suspected kidney stones, which imaging modality is preferred?
• Soft tissue injury from prolonged exposure to nonfreezing cold and moisture with pale, mottled, pulseless and numb feet that does not rapidly improve with rewarming and may be painful for 2-3 days after rewarming is known as what?
• Which of the following are clinical features of alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• What is the initial step in rapid sequence intubation?
• Which organisms commonly infect human bite wounds?
• What is the purpose of placing a Foley catheter in burn management?
• Exposure to gas heat, smoke inhalation, acidosis or coma with flu-like symptoms progressing to coma indicates which poisoning?
• What is the purpose of using pressure monitoring devices in cardiogenic shock?
• Which of the following is NOT a red flag of back pain?
• In myxedema, what is the expected pattern of T3, T4, and TSH?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the common predictors for difficulty with bag-valve mask ventilation?
• Which feature is typical of epididymitis?
• Which condition is an example of a qualitative platelet defect?
• Which management step is central to treating trench foot and chillblains?
• What does ABCs stand for in emergency management?
• Which areas are sites where life-threatening hemorrhage can occur?
• Which technique is preferred for anesthetizing a facial laceration?
• Which items are included in the general treatment plan for cardiogenic shock?
• Near-drowning disposition when GCS is greater than 13 and oxygen saturation over 95%?
• What is the most common causative agent of infection with puncture wounds?
• What is the last step in wound evaluation, if needed?
• Bone metastases most commonly respond to which therapy?
• Which of the following is a potential complication of rhabdomyolysis besides renal failure?
• Which statement is true about frostbite?
• Which step is NOT part of outpatient management for less severe burns?
• Uncomplicated UTI meaning
• What are the initial management priorities for a burn patient?
• Which symptom combination is most characteristic of pyelonephritis?
• What is the recommended approach to remove a wood splinter?
• Which pair of vasoconstrictors is commonly used with local anesthetic to prolong the block and decrease bleeding?
• Which scenario requires admission for pyelonephritis?
• Gas bubbles forming in tissue and circulation causing acute occlusion and delayed inflammatory response describe which diving-related condition?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature of hypoglycemia?
• In cauda equina syndrome, which symptom tends to present early?
• Which insect can cause a sterile pustule that evolves over 6-24 hours and may cause necrosis and scarring?
• Which technique provides the most reliable immediate confirmation of endotracheal tube placement?
• Which of the following is an example of a cause of cardiogenic shock?
• If outpatient treatment for pyelonephritis fails, which antibiotic combination is recommended?
• A right shift on the oxygen affinity curve is associated with which changes in pH, temperature, and PCO2?
• During resuscitation, which area is evaluated first?
• What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines?
• Which symptom is characteristic of frostbite?
• What is the initial management for testicular torsion?
• What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Midazolam is marketed under which brand name?
• Which of the following is an initial step in treating an insect sting reaction?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with cystitis?
• What is the first step in wound evaluation?
• Weak dorsiflexion of the great toe and foot with an inability to walk on the heels indicates compression of which nerve root?
• Which of the following are common clinical features of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• What imaging should be ordered for suspected testicular torsion?
• Which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the index finger?
• Which shift on the oxygen affinity curve increases the affinity for O2?
• Is cardiac monitoring indicated in a healthy person who has been tasered?
• Which type of laceration typically requires operative repair?
• Which clinical scenario would most support ordering a straight leg raising test to evaluate possible disc herniation?
• Which therapy is considered definitive for decompression sickness?
• What is the angle range associated with a positive straight leg raise for disc herniation?
• How would you describe the sensitivity of the straight leg raise test for detecting disc herniation?
• Which description corresponds to 3rd-degree frostbite?
• For anesthesia of a facial region during laceration repair, which technique is described as appropriate?
• A right shift on the oxygen affinity curve would result in what change to P50?
• Which burn type increases risk of death and is important to evaluate for?
• Which of the following is part of the treatment for intrinsic renal failure?
• Which statement lists the types of anemia that would have a normal MCV according to the material?
• What type of burn is described by red, painful skin with no blistering, involving only the epidermis?
• Platelet transfusion is indicated in disseminated intravascular coagulation when platelets are within which range if there is active bleeding?
• EMTALA is colloquially described as which law?
• Anaphylactic shock is best defined as which?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with rhabdomyolysis?
• What is the essential initial treatment component for heat emergencies?
• Which of the following is included in the initial management steps for hemorrhagic shock?
• Cryoprecipitate is used to replace which factors?
• Elevated lactate is most commonly associated with which scenario?
• The nerve that provides sensation to the chin and lower lip and is targeted for mental area anesthesia is which?
• Which findings are clinical indicators of inhalation injury?
• Which EKG finding is classically associated with hypothermia?
• Face sutures in place for _ days.
• Which statement best describes decompensation in shock?
• What is the recommended treatment for alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Which condition is associated with decreased vasomotor tone and peripheral pooling in poorly acclimatized individuals during heat exposure?
• Painful inflammatory lesions typically affecting the ears, hands, and feet from chronic exposure to intermittent damp conditions, presenting with edema, erythema and cyanosis up to 12 hours after exposure, are called what?
• Which of the following is NOT among the factors that predict difficulty with bag-valve mask ventilation (BVM)?
• This topical local anesthetic can be applied directly to intact skin.
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the patient dorsiflexes the wrist?
• Which combination defines heat stroke?
• Which statement best describes the straight leg raise test in the context of disc herniation?
• What type of dressing is recommended for outpatient management of less severe burns?
• What is the ultimate goal of wound management?
• In patients with back pain and a history of IV drug use, which diagnosis is particularly important to consider?
• What type of burn is described by blistering with exposed dermis pale white/yellow, with no cap refill and absent pain sensation in deeper areas?
• What is the primary purpose of a neuromuscular blocking agent during RSI?
• A class IV hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Which statement is not a typical factor used to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which frostbite degree is associated with hemorrhagic bullae and skin necrosis?
• Which rare blood disorder is characterized by widespread microvascular thrombosis causing thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia?
• Which is a clinical feature of renal failure?
• Which statement about dog bite infections is accurate?
• Which of the following statements about blood products is true?
• What is the recommended treatment for dog bites?
• Chillblains are characterized by edema, erythema and cyanosis appearing up to how many hours after exposure?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does each leg (including both front and back) represent?
• Which glucocorticoid is given intravenously in adrenal crisis?
• If penile fracture is suspected, which specialist should be consulted for definitive management?
• What is the most common bacteria to cause pyelonephritis?
• Which description corresponds to 4th-degree frostbite?
• Which statement is true about noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation modalities?
• Which burn depth is described as destruction of epidermis and dermis with exposed dermis, very painful?
• Scalp sutures in place for ___ days.
• An eyelid wound with ptosis should be referred.
• During Parkland fluid resuscitation, which parameter is used to gauge adequacy of resuscitation?
• Which induction agent is preferred for a patient who is hypotensive or has bronchospasm?
• In medical terminology, infection of the urethra is called what?
• In management of alcoholic ketoacidosis, which IV fluid regimen is preferred?
• Which plasma-derived product is used to correct coagulation defects in bleeding patients with multiple deficiencies?
• A patient with sudden severe flank pain radiating to the groin most likely has which condition?
• Which statement correctly describes correcting serum sodium in DKA?
• Lip wounds require antibiotics under which circumstance?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the perineum contribute?
• Which blood product is primarily used to replace fibrinogen in bleeding disorders?
• Which item is NOT part of the big 6 must do's/asks when evaluating back pain?
• During the workup for hypothermia, which imaging is used to assess for infection or aspiration?
• Which brand name corresponds to hydromorphone?
• Back pain with a positive straight-leg raise test most often indicates which diagnosis?
• Which statement is true regarding chemical burns from alkali or reactive metals (sodium, potassium, calcium, lithium)?
• How is the anion gap calculated?
• A commonly used local anesthetic has an onset of about 5 minutes and lasts around 6 hours. Which agent is this?
• Which agent is listed as a vasopressor or inotrope for cardiogenic shock?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the back constitute?
• Where should you begin suturing for complicated lesions of the lips?
• What is the range of the Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• Which disease is described by the triad of hemolytic anemia, acute kidney failure, and thrombocytopenia, often after bloody diarrhea due to E. coli?
• Which medication from the thyroid storm management group is an antithyroid drug?
• In DKA, how is potassium status typically described?
• A decreased reticulocyte count in sickle cell disease most strongly suggests which complication?
• Under what condition is primary closure of a cat bite wound considered?
• Which laboratory test is part of evaluating suspected pyelonephritis?
• Which test is used to document a lower-extremity injury?
• Which method is used to confirm endotracheal tube placement immediately after intubation?
• If back pain with suspected tumor, fracture or infection, what imaging would you order?
• This opioid can be given via IV, IM, PO, SQ and has a 1-3 min onset that lasts for 4-6 hours; it is metabolized in the liver and excreted renally.
• Balanoposthitis is inflammation of which structures?
• The condition characterized by skeletal muscle injury with necrosis and release of intracellular contents is called?
• Hypothermia is defined as a body temperature less than what value?
• In burn management, why is maintaining body warmth important?
• When evaluating wounds of the upper extremity, which steps are appropriate to include in the assessment?
• Which is a first-line non-pharmacologic treatment for stable supraventricular tachycardia?
• Which combination of symptoms is commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which arrhythmia is commonly associated with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
• What is the typical healing time for a back sprain/strain?
• This opioid is discouraged due to large histamine release, toxic metabolite that may cause seizures, and can be fatal if given with an MAOI.
• Injury with high voltage electrical exposure is commonly associated with which condition requiring monitoring for rhabdomyolysis?
• Cardiac output is calculated as which of the following?
• What is the recommended epinephrine dose for adults with anaphylaxis?
• Which laboratory tests are commonly ordered in suspected kidney stones?
• Neurogenic shock is defined as shock that occurs after injury to the spinal cord with disruption of sympathetic outflow, resulting in unopposed vagal tone. What is the name of this condition?
• Which imaging study is used to diagnose SVC syndrome?
• Which statement best describes the management of tendon lacerations?
• In a triage system, which level indicates that patients are dead or have a very poor chance of survival?
• What is a first-line outpatient antibiotic option for pyelonephritis?
• A common laboratory finding in pyelonephritis is which of the following?
• Hyponatremia is associated with which diagnosis?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?
• Which diagnostic test should be obtained for every patient with DKA or HHS to assess for electrolyte disturbances and potential underlying causes such as myocardial infarction?
• Which sequence correctly lists the steps of evaluating a wound?
• Which statement best describes anemia treatment when transfusion is indicated?
• Which labs and diagnostics should be ordered for thermal injuries?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect bronchial smooth muscle?
• What should be done in the ED for paraphimosis?
• Which is NOT listed as a risk factor for rhabdomyolysis?
• Which burn is described as waxy, leathery and lifeless, with death of all skin layers?
• Which test should be documented when evaluating lower-extremity injuries?
• What is a potential limitation of the straight leg raise test when considering disc herniation?
• Which statement about decompression sickness is true?
• Which symptoms may occur during a delayed reaction to an insect bite or sting?
• Which complication should be checked for in lightning injuries during the work-up?
• In the workup for suspected hypothermia, which item is included?
• Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease presents with which combination?
• Which drug is a non-opioid benzodiazepine used as a muscle relaxant and can cause phlebitis when given IV?
• What is the primary goal of Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?
• What is the ketone status typically seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Which is an example of a qualitative platelet defect?
• What is the recommended initial treatment for adrenal crisis?
• Which burn depth involves charring present, with epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and sometimes bone involved?
• In neurogenic shock, the severity of symptoms is related to the level of spinal injury, with higher injuries producing more severe effects. Which option best reflects this statement?
• What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
• Which is a typical feature of adrenal crisis?
• Which pair of vasoconstrictors can be administered with local anesthetic to prolong the block and reduce bleeding?
• Which statement describes airway management in suspected inhalation injury?
• Which of the following is a cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?
• Which of the following is a recommended frostbite treatment?
• Gradual onset pain and swelling of one or both testes with fever is most consistent with which condition?
• Why should aggressive rubbing be avoided in hypothermia treatment?
• Which benzodiazepine is associated with amnesia and has an onset of 3-5 minutes, declining over 30-40 minutes?
• Which opioid is primarily excreted renally?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the digits are adducted and abducted?
• Which finding is most consistent with testicular torsion?
• Severe hyperglycemia without significant ketoacidosis is best described as which condition?
• Hyponatremia with sodium less than 120 mEq/L is treated with which therapy?
• Should ice be applied to burns?
• Which burn depth includes charring with involvement of epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and sometimes bone?
• For suspected SVC syndrome with neurologic deficit, which treatment is indicated?
• In adults, the anterior chest represents what percent of body surface area when estimating burns?
• Which bacterium is commonly associated with cat bite infections?
• Disposition largely based on for near-drowning?
• What is included in the management of cat bites?
• Which assessment is part of the work-up for lightning injuries?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the whole head represent?
• _________ is the most common diving affliction and is caused by the direct mechanical effects of pressure.
• In neurogenic shock, which combination of findings is most characteristic?
• Delayed reactions to insect bites may include which combination of symptoms?
• EMTALA applies to which patients presenting to the ED?
• Which statement about diabetic ketoacidosis is true?
• In urgent transfusion management, which test checks compatibility between the patient and donor blood?
• What insulin infusion rate is used in DKA management?
• Thyroid storm is a life-threatening form of thyrotoxicosis most commonly seen in patients with which condition?
• Which description corresponds to 2nd-degree frostbite?
• Which blood product has the highest oxygen-carrying capacity per unit and is used to increase hemoglobin?
• Which of the following is a red flag for back pain that may indicate infection or serious pathology?
• What is the Parkland burn formula and how is it administered?
• What is the recommended treatment approach for Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• What is the initial management for back sprain/strain?
• Balanoposthitis is most commonly found in which population?
• The smaller the suture, the _____ throws needed to form a secure knot.
• Under what condition can a patient with hypoglycemia be discharged from the ED?
• Which step in wound management involves removal of foreign bodies or hair?
• Which antibiotic option is listed for high-risk puncture wounds?
• Percocet contains which opioid?
• Clinical features of myxedema coma include which of the following?
• Decompensated shock occurs when
• Which laboratory value supports the presence of metabolic acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which insect bite causes immediate pain and paresthesia with a positive tap test, and what is the treatment?
• What is a recommended treatment approach for insect bites and stings that provoke a reaction?
• What is the treatment for spider bites?
• Which action is related to temperature control as an exposure/environmental measure during resuscitation?
• Burn victims requiring transfer to a specialty burn unit are typically those with which condition?
• Infections of dorsal hand lacerations are most commonly caused by which organism?
• Which motor response corresponds to a score of 6 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease is a pulmonary complication that is most often associated with which trigger?
• Toxic doses of ibuprofen start at which mg/kg/day?
• Which of the following is included in the treatment plan for trench foot and chillblains?
• What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
• Cryoprecipitate is derived from which product?
• A class II hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Survival following asphyxia due to submerging.
• What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency?
• In suspected penile fracture, which diagnostic study should be ordered to evaluate urethral injury?
• Which chest X-ray findings are commonly associated with cardiogenic shock?
• Which insect bite is classically associated with immediate pain and paresthesia and a positive tap test?
• In a patient with renal failure who is mild, has a clear cause, no complications, and access to follow-up care, what is the most appropriate disposition?
• A medical condition that results from pressure changes that occur when a person descends in water or ascends in altitude.
• Which of the following is NOT accurate about the straight leg raise test for disc herniation?
• During the straight leg raise test, a positive result is best indicated by pain occurring at what range of hip flexion?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect cardiac function?
• Which antibiotics are listed for dog bite infections?
• Which condition causes pain that radiates from the buttock down the leg and can extend to the feet and toes?
• Which lab value is markedly elevated in rhabdomyolysis?
• In which scenario should a urine culture be obtained for suspected UTI?
• What venous pH level is considered a treatment target in DKA?
• Which of the following is an indication to remove a foreign body from a wound?
• Infection of the kidney and renal pelvis is called
• Which condition would warrant admission for a patient with a urinary stone?
• What is the normal range for the anion gap?
• Ejection fraction is defined as which ratio?
• In the initial management of diabetic ketoacidosis, what is the first therapeutic priority?
• During DKA treatment, how often should labs be monitored and neuro checks performed?
• Indicators of poor prognosis following near drowning.
• What is the term for acute life-threatening adrenal insufficiency?
• Which analgesic is administered as a gas with a rapid onset, peaks in 1-2 minutes, must be delivered with oxygen, and is used for pediatric populations outside the USA?
• A class III hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• In resuscitation, the DEs stand for which two components?
• What is the recommended approach to cooling burns?
• Back pain with point tenderness to percussion should raise concern for which diagnosis?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect vascular smooth muscle?
• What is the first-line treatment for adults with anaphylactic shock?
• Which opioid is primarily given IV and PO and has an onset of 5 minutes and peaks in 5-15 minutes; duration greater than 5 hours?
• SVR stands for which hemodynamic term?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the first dorsal web space?
• What is the imaging modality of choice for epididymitis?
• Hypercalcemia is most commonly seen with which cancers?
• Acetaminophen is considered safe for children older than how many weeks?
• What is the maximum possible Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• Initial treatment for human bites causing lacerations?
• Which of the following items constitute the 'big 6' must do's/asks when evaluating back pain?
• If no pulse is detected within how many seconds should CPR be initiated in an emergency?
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation is best described as which of the following?
• What is the treatment for scabies?
• In adults and children over 1 year, which pulse site is checked first when assessing circulation?
• What finding constitutes a positive straight leg raise test?
• Which drug is commonly used as a pre-treatment during RSI to blunt sympathetic response and reduce risk during intubation?
• Which blood product contains all coagulation factors and fibrinogen?
• After controlling bleeding, what is the next immediate step in wound evaluation?
• During laryngoscopy, the BURP maneuver applies pressure in which direction set to improve the view?
• The metabolic acidosis state due to inadequate nutritional intake in chronic alcohol use is called what?
• Which knot is described for tendon repair in the material?
• Which of the following are common opioid side effects?
• What bicarbonate level is specified as a treatment goal in DKA?
• Initial management for decompression sickness.
• Which sign is negative in testicular torsion and positive in epididymo-orchitis?
• Initial management steps for myxedema coma include which of the following?
• What verbal response corresponds to a score of 5 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• What is an appropriate initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome presenting with neurologic deficit?
• Which diagnostic test should be used to evaluate urethral injury in penile fracture?
• Which is a complication of rhabdomyolysis?
• If alkalosis occurs with lower temperature and CO2, what shift on the O2 affinity curve occurs?
• Which of the following conditions can cause cauda equina syndrome?
• NSAIDs like aspirin, naproxen, and ibuprofen are safe for children after what age?
• What is the minimal urine output that a burn patient should have?
• Which option is NOT a red flag for cancer in back pain?
• In insect bite or sting reactions, is the severity greater with quicker or more delayed onset?
• Which statement best describes the diagnostic criteria for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Hyponatremia with sodium greater than 125 mEq/L is typically treated with which measure?
• In Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), which osmolality level is typically observed?
• Inability to retract the foreskin is called?
• Which federal law requires that anyone arriving at an emergency department be stabilized and treated regardless of insurance status or ability to pay?
• Which describes quantitative platelet defects?
• What is the general approach to anemia treatment when transfusion is planned?
• Escharotomy is performed to relieve constriction from burned tissue in which area to aid breathing?
• Pharmacologic therapies for hypothermia are ineffective below which core temperatures?
• Back pain with major motor weakness should raise concern for which cause?
• In a patient with sulfonylurea–induced hypoglycemia, what is the recommended initial management?
• Uncomplicated UTI features
• What is the fifth component of the ABCDEs in resuscitation?
• In cardiogenic shock with pulmonary congestion, when should diuretics be used?
• Which are clinical features of platelet defects?
• Which finding would support a positive straight leg raise test in a patient with back pain?
• What is the initial compensatory method during shock?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the little finger?
• During resuscitation with a pulse, how often should breaths be delivered?
• Inability to reduce the proximal edematous foreskin distally over the glans is called?
• Which statement best summarizes the diagnostic utility of the straight leg raise test for disc herniation?
• Which of the following is a cause of secondary adrenal insufficiency?
• What type of burn is described by blistering with exposed dermis red and moist and very painful?
• Which of the following is a common early sign of hypothermia?
• Which insect bite causes intense pruritus with burrows concentrated on web spaces, fingers, and toes?
• The 1984 death of an 18-year-old female in a New York hospital leading to changes in medical training is commonly known as which case?
• This opioid is synthetic, has immediate onset and lasts 30 minutes; can be given as a lollipop and does not release histamine.
• Gastritis, pancreatitis, or hepatitis may accompany which metabolic state following heavy alcohol use?
• What is the recommended management for viral orchitis?
• RSI stands for what in airway management?
• Which of the following is NOT a precipitating factor for thyroid storm?
• Which respiratory pattern is classically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
• During the straight leg raise test, the patient is positioned how?
• What term describes a direct venom effect presenting with GI disturbances and bronchospasm?
• HUS is often preceded by which event?
• What should you always inspect nose wounds for?
• In suspected renal failure due to a vascular cause, which imaging feature helps assess perfusion?
• Which of the following is not typically part of the initial management of neurogenic shock?
• Which color code indicates that patients are sick but care can be delayed 45-60 minutes?
• A class I hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the index finger?
• What imaging study should be used to look for foreign bodies or bone destruction in an infected puncture wound?
• Why is bupivacaine added to lidocaine for local anesthesia?
• Which brand name corresponds to hydrocodone?
• What is the most common cause of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease?
• Noninvasive ventilation is an alternative to intubation in which scenario?
• What is the treatment for hypoglycemia with altered mental status?
• What is the treatment for balanoposthitis?
• Which of the following is a sign/symptom of thyroid storm?
• Which symptom cluster is typical of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease?
• Which statement best describes the indications for dialysis in renal failure?
• Initial management of chemical burns includes which of the following?
• Which skin finding is typical in neurogenic shock?
• Opioids are excreted primarily by which route?
• Which ancillary studies should be ordered for suspected cardiogenic shock?
• Which nonpharmacologic measure is part of the initial management for epididymo-orchitis?
• In hypoglycemia due to long-acting sulfonylureas, what may be needed after initial dextrose therapy?
• Which sign is positive in epididymitis, indicating relief of pain with scrotal elevation?
• In heat emergencies, ICU admission is most likely required for which scenario?
• What suture size is appropriate for lower-extremity wounds?
• Cryoprecipitate contains which combination of factors?
• Urethritis is commonly associated with which clinical feature?
• Bone metastases typically originate from which primary sites?
• What is the distinctive feathering marking seen on lightning strike victims?
• If back pain with neurological deficit, what imaging would be best?
• For chemical burns caused by sodium, potassium, calcium, or lithium, which first-aid measure is preferred?
• In a basic triage scheme, which color tag corresponds to third priority and allows patients to wait several hours for treatment?
• What are the three main sections of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Back pain with fever should raise suspicion for which etiology?
• What is the medical term for stones in the urinary tract?
• What size suture can uncomplicated eyelid lacerations be closed with?
• What is the recommended management for high-pressure puncture wounds?
• Initial management of electrical injuries includes which of the following?
• Never clip or shave which area during wound preparation?
• Weak plantar flexion of the great toe and foot with an inability to walk on toes and a diminished ankle jerk indicates compression of which nerve root?
• A positive straight leg raise test most commonly suggests herniation at which disc levels?
• Which lab finding would strongly lead you to the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis?
• How can the diagnosis of hypoglycemia be made?
• Injection of an anesthetic into and around a nerve or group of nerves is called a?
• What is the treatment for post-renal renal failure?
• What is the initial treatment for hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock?
• What is the preferred method for protecting the airway in emergency airway management?
• Which symptom can indicate hypoglycemia?
• Where is tenderness typically located in epididymitis?
• For an infected dorsal hand laceration being treated on an outpatient basis, which antibiotic regimen is appropriate?
• What is the reversal agent for opioids?
• Which presentation best suggests cauda equina syndrome?
• As part of outpatient management for less severe burns, wounds should be kept covered from which exposure?